"Suit the action to the word, the word to the action,"  Hamlet instructs the players.  III.ii.18-19.

Is this not what Hamlet does?   From a cynical perspective, Hamlet expresses faith when it serves him best, and lack of faith when doubting serves.  He suits his (in)action to his words.  At the same time, his interests at a given moment apparently dictate his expression.   He suits his words to his (in)action.

Hamlet's rhetoric is bent to serve his philosophical needs; or perhaps, his philosphical needs are bent to accord with his rhetoric.   

Does oscillation between the two ultimately propel him to action?